Delhi Judicial Services Preliminary Exam Question Paper 2018


 
09
Jul

Delhi Judicial Services Preliminary Exam Question Paper 2018


Delhi Judicial Services Preliminary Exam Question Paper 2018
 

Which of the following acts constitute the commissioning of theft?
 
  1. ‘C’ finds a necklace in the bedroom of ‘D’, and ‘C’ retains that necklace.

  2. ‘C’ finds the necklace of ‘D’ on the road and keeps it.

  3. ‘C’ buys necklace from ‘E’ and subsequently learns that ‘E’ had stolen it from D

  4. ‘C’ is given the necklace by ‘D’ for safekeeping, but ‘C’ wears the necklace and drops and looses it.

  5.  
 
A private person:
 
  1. cannot arrest an accused.

  2. can arrest any person who in his presence commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence in the absence of a police officer.

  3. can arrest a person if he sees him running away from the crime spot where an offence has been committed.

  4. can arrest any person suspected of committing an offence.

  5.  
 
Every police officer on making arrest has to forthwith give information regarding such arrest and the place from where the person was arrested:
 
  1. to the Magistrate of the area.

  2. to the complainant/victim.

  3. to the friend, relative or such other person disclosed or nominated by the arrested person.

  4. it is not necessary to inform anyone but the person arrested must be informed about the grounds of arrest.

  5.  
 
The ‘right of audience’ under the Indian Constitution given to the Attorney General of India in the performance of his/her duties is the right relating to:
 
  1. appearance in courts.

  2. appearance before the House of Parliament.

  3. appearance before the cabinet for legal issues.

  4. appearance before the President of India.

  5.  
 
Etymologically the word “Ombudsman” means :
 
  1. Arbitrator.

  2. Regulator.

  3. Representative.

  4. Head of the organization.

  5.  
 
 
In International Law, the term “erga omnes” obligation refers to:
 
  1. obligations that States have towards the international community as a whole.

  2. obligations that International Organizations have towards each other.

  3. obligations that a State has with regard to its people.

  4. obligations that a State has towards an enemy state.

  5.  
 
Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II
 
I Alternative dispute resolution                      A. Unni Krishnan’s case
 
II Right to education                                     B. Afcons Infrastructure Ltd.’s case
 
III Right against self incrimination                 C. Sunil Batra’s case
 
IV Solitary confinement                                D. Nandini Satpathy’s case
 
Codes:
 
  1. I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

  2. I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A

  3. I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A

  4. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

  5.  
 
 The maxim ‘de minimis non curat lex’ is the foundation of which general exception under Chapter IV of the Indian Penal Code?
 
  1. act causing slight harm.

  2. act of child under seven years of age.

  3. act of child above seven and under twelve of immature understanding.

  4. accident in doing a lawful act.

  5.  
 
The defence of intoxication is not available:
 
  1. where the person is incapable of knowing the nature of the act.

  2. where the intoxication is voluntary.

  3. where the person is incapable of knowing that what he is doing is wrong.

  4. where the person is incapable of knowing that what he is doing is contrary to law.

  5.  
 
‘A’ who is abducted by ’B’ is forced by the threat of instant death by ‘B’ who is heavily armed to use his (A’s) skills as a smith to force open the door of a house in order to enable ‘B’ to commit robbery. ‘A’ has committed:
 
  1. housebreaking.

  2. house trespass.

  3. robbery.

  4. no offence.

  5.  
 
 ‘A’ who is 19 years of age instigates his sister ‘B’ who is 6 years of age to pick the pocket of a co-passenger. As soon as ‘B’ slips the purse of the co-passenger in her school bag she is caught.
However, when the purse is opened, it is found to be empty. In this case which one of the following statements is correct:
 
  1. ‘A’ and ‘B’ have committed no offence.

  2. ‘A’ has committed no offence while ‘B’ has committed theft.

  3. ‘A’ has committed an offence and ‘B’ has abetted the same.

  4. ‘B’ does not commit any offence and ‘A’ is guilty of abetment.

  5.  
 
Section 303 Indian Penal Code was struck down as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in the case of:
 
  1. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab.

  2. Mithu v. State of Punjab.

  3. Brij Mohan v. State of Rajasthan.

  4. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
 
 
‘A’, a government servant removed a file from his colleague’s office to his house, made it available to an outsider and then returned it back to the office the same day in the evening. ‘A’ is guilty of which of the following offence:
 
  1. criminal misappropriation of property.

  2. theft.

  3. criminal breach of trust.

  4. none of the above.

  5.  
 
On death of a partner, in absence of any term to the contrary, a partnership firm is dissolved:
 
  1. where the Will of deceased partner states that the partnership will be dissolved.

  2. when last of the erstwhile partner dies.

  3. when there were only two partners and one dies.

  4. when a minor admitted to benefit of partnership dies.

  5.  
 
A partnership firm not registered with the Registrar of Firms under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 can:
 
  1. file a suit to enforce contractual rights with a third person.

  2. file a suit based on common law rights.

  3. file a suit for recovery of money under an agreement under Order XXX of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

  4. file all types of civil suit which have merit.

  5.  
 
A minor acting through the guardian:
 
  1. can be inducted as partner of a firm.

  2. can be admitted to the benefit of partnership with personal liability.

  3. can be admitted to the benefit of partnership without personal liability,

  4. cannot be admitted to benefit of partnership.
 
 
Decree for specific performance for movable property can be granted:
 
  1. in case the seller fails to supply the goods.

  2. when the goods are not available with the seller, but the equivalent are available with third persons.

  3. when the plaintiff sues for a 50 year old painting.

  4. where movable property has been destroyed.  
 
 
A and B orally settle a dispute with the help of C. This oral settlement is:
 
  1. an award under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act. 1996.

  2. an agreement under the Contract Act.

  3. not an agreement under the Contract Act, as it is not in writing

  4. a conciliation agreement within the meaning of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
 
 
Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, Arbitration Tribunal may direct payment of interest:
 
  1. for whole or part of the period from the date of cause of action till award, but not for the period post the award.

  2. for whole or part of the period from the date of cause of action till payment is made.

  3. for the period post the award only when the arbitration clause specifically states that interest shall be awarded.

  4. Arbitration Tribunal cannot award interest and only Court can direct and award interest.
 
 
Secondary evidence cannot be led:
 
  1. when original is in the possession of the other party.

  2. original is of such nature that it is not easily movable.

  3. when original is in possession of the person who is out of reach and not subject to processes of the court.

  4. when original is in possession of the person who wants to adduce secondary evidence.

  5.  


Kavita Sethi

Kavita Sethi

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Having a keen hobby in writing from university days. I have been writing articles, blogs on various elements. Presently working with Juris Academy as a content writer. Diving deep into the on-going generation and writing on same is what I do.

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